Q1
On which date was Article 370 abrogated, granting the government authority to bifurcate J&K?
(A) 4th August 2019
β
(B) 5th August 2019
(C) 15th August 2019
(D) 26th August 2019
π Answer: (B)
Article 370 was abrogated on 5th August 2019. The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the state into two Union Territories: J&K (with legislature) and Ladakh (without legislature).
Q2
Which day is observed as Hiroshima Day, commemorating the atomic bombing during World War II?
β
(A) 6th August
(B) 7th August
(C) 8th August
(D) 9th August
π Answer: (A)
Hiroshima was bombed on 6th August 1945. Nagasaki was bombed on 9th August 1945. Both dates are observed internationally to promote nuclear disarmament.
Q3
World Elephant Day and International Youth Day are both observed on which date?
(A) 10th August
(B) 11th August
β
(C) 12th August
(D) 13th August
π Answer: (C)
Both World Elephant Day and International Youth Day are observed on 12th August every year. World Elephant Day was first observed in 2012.
Q4
National Sports Day in India is observed on 29th August. Why is this date significant?
(A) Birthday of Milkha Singh
β
(B) Birthday of Major Dhyan Chand
(C) Birthday of P.T. Usha
(D) Birthday of Abhinav Bindra
π Answer: (B)
29th August is the birthday of Major Dhyan Chand (born 1905), the legendary hockey wizard. India won three consecutive Olympic gold medals in hockey (1928, 1932, 1936) under his leadership.
Q5
Partition Horrors Remembrance Day is observed on which date in India?
(A) 13th August
β
(B) 14th August
(C) 15th August
(D) 16th August
π Answer: (B)
14th August is observed as Partition Horrors Remembrance Day in India, declared by the government in 2021 to honour the victims of Partition (1947). It is also Pakistan's Independence Day.
Q6
Which edition of Independence Day did India celebrate in August 2026?
(A) 77th
(B) 78th
(C) 79th
β
(D) 80th
π Answer: (D)
India gained independence on 15th August 1947. The 80th Independence Day was celebrated in August 2026 (1947 + 79 years = 2026, but counting the first as the 1st gives the 80th celebration).
Q7
The International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples is observed on which date?
(A) 7th August
β
(B) 9th August
(C) 11th August
(D) 12th August
π Answer: (B)
9th August is the International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples, established by the UN General Assembly in 1994.
Q8
World Biofuel Day is observed on which date?
(A) 8th August
β
(B) 10th August
(C) 12th August
(D) 18th August
π Answer: (B)
World Biofuel Day is observed on 10th August every year to raise awareness about non-fossil fuels as alternatives to conventional fossil fuels.
Q9
What is the current Repo Rate as decided in the August 2026 RBI MPC meeting?
(A) 5.00%
β
(B) 5.25%
(C) 5.50%
(D) 6.00%
π Answer: (B)
The RBI Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) kept the Repo Rate unchanged at 5.25% in August 2026. The Repo Rate is the rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks.
Q10
What is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate after the August 2026 RBI policy?
(A) 4.75%
β
(B) 5.00%
(C) 5.25%
(D) 5.50%
π Answer: (B)
The SDF rate is 5.00% (Repo Rate minus 25 bps). SDF allows banks to park excess liquidity with RBI without any collateral. It replaced the reverse repo as the floor rate.
Q11
What is the Bank Rate (also the MSF rate) after the August 2026 RBI MPC decision?
(A) 5.00%
(B) 5.25%
β
(C) 5.50%
(D) 5.75%
π Answer: (C)
The Bank Rate / Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate is 5.50% (Repo Rate plus 25 bps). Banks can borrow overnight from RBI at the MSF rate against approved government securities.
Q12
RBI revised India's GDP growth forecast for FY2026-27 to which figure in August 2026?
(A) 6.5%
(B) 6.6%
β
(C) 6.7%
(D) 7.0%
π Answer: (C)
RBI revised GDP growth forecast upward to 6.7% from the earlier estimate of 6.6%, reflecting improving economic conditions and consumption recovery.
Q13
RBI's CPI inflation projection for FY2026-27 stands at which figure?
(A) 4.5%
(B) 4.8%
β
(C) 5.0%
(D) 5.2%
π Answer: (C)
RBI projected CPI inflation at 5.0% for FY2026-27. CPI (Consumer Price Index) tracks changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services.
Q14
What does SDF stand for in the context of RBI's monetary policy tools?
(A) Special Deposit Framework
β
(B) Standing Deposit Facility
(C) Statutory Discount Fund
(D) Structured Deposit Formula
π Answer: (B)
SDF stands for Standing Deposit Facility. Introduced in April 2022, it is a liquidity absorption tool that allows RBI to absorb surplus liquidity from banks without providing collateral. The SDF rate is the floor of the LAF (Liquidity Adjustment Facility) corridor.
Q15
The LAF corridor in India's monetary policy consists of which pair of rates?
(A) Repo Rate and Bank Rate
β
(B) SDF Rate and MSF Rate
(C) CRR and SLR
(D) Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate
π Answer: (B)
The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor is bounded by the SDF rate (floor) at 5.00% and the MSF rate (ceiling) at 5.50%, with the Repo Rate at 5.25% as the policy rate in the middle.
Q16
The MSMED Amendment Bill 2026 was first introduced in which House of Parliament?
(A) Lok Sabha
β
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both Houses simultaneously
(D) The bill was introduced directly in a Joint Session
π Answer: (B)
The MSMED Amendment Bill 2026 was first introduced in Rajya Sabha and then passed in Lok Sabha. Non-Money Bills can originate in either House. This was not a Money Bill, so it went to Rajya Sabha first.
Q17
What key change did the MSMED Amendment Bill 2026 make regarding the MSME classification threshold?
(A) Increased the threshold by 50%
β
(B) Removed the fixed statutory investment threshold from the Act
(C) Added a new Nano-enterprise category
(D) Made turnover the only classification criterion
π Answer: (B)
The amendment removed the fixed statutory investment threshold from the Act itself, making future revision easier. The figures will still be notified by the government separately, allowing updates without amending the Act.
Q18
Under the MSMED Amendment Bill 2026, payment-related mediation must be completed within how many days from the first hearing?
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
β
(C) 90 days
(D) 120 days
π Answer: (C)
Payment-related mediation must be completed within 90 days from the date of the first hearing. This ensures faster dispute resolution for MSME payment issues.
Q19
By what percentage does the minimum monetary penalty automatically increase every three years under MSMED Amendment Bill 2026?
(A) 5%
β
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
π Answer: (B)
The minimum monetary penalty will automatically increase by 10% every three years. This ensures penalties remain relevant and deterrent as economic conditions change.
Q20
As per the current MSME classification, an enterprise is classified as 'Micro' if its investment in plant & machinery is up to βΉ2.5 crore AND annual turnover is up to?
(A) βΉ5 crore
(B) βΉ8 crore
β
(C) βΉ10 crore
(D) βΉ12 crore
π Answer: (C)
Micro: Investment up to βΉ2.5 crore AND turnover up to βΉ10 crore. Small: Investment up to βΉ25 crore AND turnover up to βΉ100 crore. Medium: Investment up to βΉ125 crore AND turnover up to βΉ500 crore.
Q21
Which platform has been made mandatory for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) to route invoice settlement for MSMEs?
(A) UPI
β
(B) TREDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System)
(C) GeM Portal
(D) TReDS via NPCI
π Answer: (B)
TREDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System), an RBI-authorized platform, has been made mandatory for CPSEs to route MSME invoice settlements. This enables faster payment resolution.
Q22
MSMED stands for what?
β
(A) Micro Small Medium Enterprise Development
(B) Micro Small Manufacturing Enterprise Division
(C) Medium Scale Manufacturing and Enterprise Division
(D) Micro Small Manufacturing Enterprise Department
π Answer: (A)
MSMED stands for Micro Small and Medium Enterprise Development. The original MSMED Act was passed in 2006 to promote and develop MSMEs.
Q23
According to Economic Survey 2025-26, what percentage of India's GDP does the MSME sector account for?
(A) 28.5%
β
(B) 31.1%
(C) 35.2%
(D) 40.0%
π Answer: (B)
According to Economic Survey 2025-26, MSMEs account for 31.1% of India's GDP. They also contribute 48.58% to India's total exports.
Q24
The MSMED Amendment Bill 2026 replaces/amends which existing Act?
β
(A) MSMED Act 2006
(B) MSMED Act 2015
(C) Industries Development Act 1951
(D) Small Industries Act 1999
π Answer: (A)
The MSMED Amendment Bill 2026 amends the MSMED Act 2006. The original Act created the framework for defining and supporting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
Q25
The Taxation and Other Laws Amendment Bill 2026 replaced which earlier legislative instrument?
(A) Finance Act 2026
β
(B) Income Tax Amendment Ordinance 2026
(C) GST Amendment Act 2025
(D) Banking Laws Amendment Ordinance 2025
π Answer: (B)
This bill replaced the Income Tax Amendment Ordinance 2026. Ordinances are temporary measures passed when Parliament is not in session; they must be replaced by bills when Parliament reconvenes.
Q26
Which category of investors has been exempted from paying income tax on interest earned from Government Securities under this bill?
(A) Domestic Mutual Funds
β
(B) Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)/Banks of International Settlement
(C) NRIs investing in PPF
(D) Foreign Portfolio Investors in equity
π Answer: (B)
Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and Banks of International Settlement have been exempted from paying income tax on interest earned from investments in Government Securities, to attract foreign investment.
Q27
From which date are the provisions of the Taxation and Other Laws Amendment Bill 2026 effective?
(A) 1st January 2026
β
(B) 1st April 2026
(C) 1st August 2026
(D) 1st October 2026
π Answer: (B)
The provisions are effective from 1st April 2026, aligning with India's financial year beginning.
Q28
The Taxation and Other Laws Amendment Bill 2026 extended tax exemptions for electronic manufacturing companies (smartphones etc.) until which year?
(A) 2035
(B) 2038
β
(C) 2041
(D) 2045
π Answer: (C)
Tax exemptions for electronic manufacturing companies including smartphone manufacturers and rough diamond cutting firms have been extended until 2041 to encourage domestic manufacturing.
Q29
The bill opens the door for processing fees on which payment system, which was previously zero-charge?
(A) NEFT
(B) RTGS
β
(C) UPI
(D) IMPS
π Answer: (C)
The amendment to the Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007 creates provision for charging processing fees on UPI transactions in the future, though no fee has been levied yet.
Q30
Which act did the Taxation and Other Laws Amendment Bill 2026 amend besides the Income Tax Act 2025?
(A) Banking Regulation Act 1949
β
(B) Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007 and Finance Act 2026
(C) Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
(D) SEBI Act 1992
π Answer: (B)
The bill amended the Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007 (enabling potential UPI fees) and the Finance Act 2026 (for foreign investor tax exemptions and data center simplification).
Q41
PRAGATI, the government's flagship governance platform, stands for what?
(A) Progressive Governance and Total Implementation
β
(B) Proactive Governance and Timely Implementation
(C) Planned Regulatory and Administrative Goals in Time
(D) Project Review and Assessment Governance Initiative
π Answer: (B)
PRAGATI stands for Proactive Governance and Timely Implementation. It is a platform used by the PM to review the implementation of important projects and schemes across states/UTs.
Q42
PM Modi chaired which numbered PRAGATI meeting recently?
(A) 49th
(B) 51st
β
(C) 53rd
(D) 55th
π Answer: (C)
PM Modi chaired the 53rd PRAGATI meeting, reviewing major infrastructure and development projects across states and Union Territories.
Q43
Since which year has the PRAGATI platform been operational?
(A) 2012
β
(B) 2015
(C) 2017
(D) 2019
π Answer: (B)
PRAGATI has been operational since 2015. It operates as a three-tier system involving the PMO, Union Government secretaries, and State chief secretaries.
Q44
GYAANI Arth is described as which type of initiative?
(A) A digital payment platform
β
(B) A Sovereign AI Stack
(C) A government welfare app
(D) A national language translation service
π Answer: (B)
GYAANI Arth is India's Sovereign AI Stack β an AI infrastructure built for Indian enterprises and public institutions, reducing dependence on foreign AI models and cloud systems.
Q45
Who launched the GYAANI Arth Sovereign AI Stack?
(A) Prime Minister Modi
β
(B) Vice President CP Radhakrishnan
(C) Home Minister Amit Shah
(D) IT Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw
π Answer: (B)
Vice President CP Radhakrishnan launched the GYAANI Arth Sovereign AI Stack, designed specifically for Indian enterprises and public institutions.
Q46
Which company developed the GYAANI Arth AI Stack?
(A) TCS
(B) Infosys
β
(C) A Bengaluru-based GYAANI AI company
(D) IIT Bombay AI Lab
π Answer: (C)
GYAANI Arth was developed by a Bengaluru-based company called GYAANI AI. The stack has two main components: the E1 3.3 LLM model and the Plexis Agentic Platform.
Q47
What are the two main components of the GYAANI Arth Sovereign AI Stack?
(A) ChatBot 2.0 and Data Shield
β
(B) E1 3.3 Language Model and Plexis Agentic Platform
(C) BharatGPT and SafeCloud
(D) Saksham and Vikas AI
π Answer: (B)
The GYAANI Arth stack has two components: (1) E1 3.3, the Large Language Model, and (2) Plexis, the Agentic Platform that integrates machine intelligence into workflows.
Q48
The JAGO AI Assistant was launched by which Ministry?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) Ministry of Rural Development
β
(C) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(D) Ministry of Social Justice
π Answer: (C)
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched JAGO AI Assistant β a conversational AI chatbot that answers queries about tribal welfare schemes in local/tribal languages, making government services accessible.
Q49
What is the primary purpose of the JAGO AI Assistant?
(A) To assist Ayushman Bharat beneficiaries
β
(B) To inform tribal communities about welfare schemes in their local languages
(C) To support farmers with crop insurance claims
(D) To help NRIs with consular services
π Answer: (B)
JAGO AI is a conversational AI assistant that responds to queries about tribal welfare schemes in the user's local language, bridging the digital divide for tribal communities.
Q50
Under the Legal Metrology IST Rules 2026, Indian Standard Time (IST) will be maintained and calculated by which two institutions?
β
(A) NPL (CSIR) and ISRO
(B) IIT Delhi and DRDO
(C) BIS and RBI
(D) IMD and ISRO
π Answer: (A)
IST will be calculated using atomic clocks at CSIR-NPL (National Physical Laboratory) and ISRO's NavIC (India's own GPS system), ensuring precision to microseconds.
Q51
Under the Legal Metrology IST Rules 2026, how many days are given as a transition period after the official gazette publication?
(A) 90 days
(B) 120 days
(C) 150 days
β
(D) 180 days
π Answer: (D)
A 180-day transition period is given after the official gazette publication, allowing all institutions to align their timekeeping systems with the new IST standard.
Q52
IST (Indian Standard Time) corresponds to GMT + how many hours?
(A) +5:00
β
(B) +5:30
(C) +5:45
(D) +6:00
π Answer: (B)
IST is GMT+5:30, based on the 82Β°30'E meridian passing through Mirzapur (Prayagraj district), Uttar Pradesh. India does not observe daylight saving time.
Q53
Which Ministry is the nodal ministry for implementation of the Legal Metrology IST Rules 2026?
(A) Ministry of Science and Technology
(B) Ministry of Electronics and IT
β
(C) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
(D) Ministry of Finance
π Answer: (C)
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is the nodal ministry for Legal Metrology matters including the IST Rules 2026.
Q54
India's NavIC system, which helps calculate IST, is India's own equivalent of which global system?
(A) WiFi
β
(B) GPS
(C) Bluetooth
(D) Satellite TV
π Answer: (B)
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is India's own regional navigation satellite system, equivalent to GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (EU), or BeiDou (China). It is operated by ISRO.
Q55
The Dhabaleswar Temple, visited by President Droupadi Murmu, is built in which architectural style?
(A) Dravidian
(B) Nagara
β
(C) Kalinga
(D) Vesara
π Answer: (C)
The Dhabaleswar Temple is built in the Kalinga architecture style, characteristic of Odisha. Kalinga architecture is known for its tall curvilinear towers (rekha deula) and intricate carvings.
Q56
The Dhabaleswar Temple is located on an island in which river?
(A) Subarnarekha
β
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahmani
(D) Baitarani
π Answer: (B)
The Dhabaleswar Temple is located on an island in the Mahanadi river, near Cuttack in Odisha. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Q57
The Dhabaleswar Temple is located near which city of Odisha?
(A) Bhubaneswar
(B) Puri
β
(C) Cuttack
(D) Sambalpur
π Answer: (C)
The Dhabaleswar Temple is located near Cuttack, the former capital of Odisha (Orissa). It is situated on an island in the Mahanadi river.
Q58
The At-Home Reception hosted by the President on Independence Day 2026 featured arts and crafts from which four states?
(A) Kerala, Karnataka, TN, AP
β
(B) Maharashtra, Goa, MP, Chhattisgarh
(C) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana
(D) UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha
π Answer: (B)
The Independence Day At-Home Reception invitation kits featured arts and crafts from Maharashtra, Goa, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. This was similar to Republic Day where North-Eastern states were featured.
Q59
Kavi Art (Kaavi Art), featured in the President's Independence Day invitation, belongs to which region?
(A) Chhattisgarh's Bastar
(B) Goa's Khajan Lands
(C) Maharashtra's Vidarbha
β
(D) Konkan Region
π Answer: (D)
Kavi/Kaavi Art belongs to the Konkan region (coastal Maharashtra and Goa). The invitation bag cover was designed with this traditional art form.
Q60
Maheshwari Silk, featured in the President's Independence Day reception kit, belongs to which state?
(A) Maharashtra
β
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Goa
π Answer: (B)
Maheshwari Silk is a traditional weave from Maheshwar town, Madhya Pradesh. It is known for its unique border designs and reversible fabric. The Maheshwari Stole (dupatta) was included in the reception kit.
Q61
Ajulezo/Azulejos Tiles, which were part of the President's Independence Day reception kit, belong to which state?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Chhattisgarh
β
(D) Goa
π Answer: (D)
Azulejos/Ajulezo Tiles are a traditional art from Goa, showing Portuguese cultural influence. The tiles were featured in the reception kit representing Goa's cultural heritage.
Q62
Pattoilyo/Patoli, a sweet dish featured in the President's Independence Day menu, belongs to which region?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
β
(C) Konkan Region (Goa/Maharashtra)
(D) Rajasthan
π Answer: (C)
Patoli/Pattoilyo is a traditional sweet dish from the Konkan region, made with rice batter stuffed with jaggery and coconut, steamed in turmeric leaves. It represents Goa/coastal Maharashtra cuisine.
Q63
Which country won the FIH Hockey World Cup 2026?
(A) Belgium
(B) Netherlands
β
(C) Germany
(D) Argentina
π Answer: (C)
Germany won the FIH Hockey World Cup 2026, defeating Belgium in the final. This was Germany's 4th Hockey World Cup title.
Q64
In the FIH Hockey World Cup 2026, which country won the Silver medal (Runner-up)?
(A) Netherlands
β
(B) Belgium
(C) Spain
(D) Argentina
π Answer: (B)
Belgium was the runner-up (silver medal) in the FIH Hockey World Cup 2026, losing to Germany in the final.
Q65
Which country won the Bronze medal at FIH Hockey World Cup 2026?
(A) Spain
(B) Netherlands
(C) Australia
β
(D) Argentina
π Answer: (D)
Argentina won the Bronze medal at the FIH Hockey World Cup 2026.
Q66
The FIH Hockey World Cup 2026 win was Germany's how-many-th title?
(A) 2nd
(B) 3rd
β
(C) 4th
(D) 5th
π Answer: (C)
FIH Hockey World Cup 2026 was Germany's 4th World Cup title. Germany previously won in 2002, 2006, and 2010.
Q128
FIH stands for?
(A) Federation International de Hockey
β
(B) FΓ©dΓ©ration Internationale de Hockey
(C) Federation for International Hockey
(D) Football and International Hockey
π Answer: (B)
FIH stands for FΓ©dΓ©ration Internationale de Hockey (International Hockey Federation in English). It is the international governing body for field hockey and indoor hockey, headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland.
Q74
The five Great Lakes of North America are remembered by which mnemonic?
β
(A) HOMES
(B) GREAT
(C) LAKES
(D) SHELF
π Answer: (A)
HOMES is the mnemonic for the five Great Lakes: H-Huron, O-Ontario, M-Michigan, E-Erie, S-Superior. Together they form the largest group of freshwater lakes in the world.
Q75
How many Great Lakes are there in North America?
(A) 3
(B) 4
β
(C) 5
(D) 6
π Answer: (C)
There are 5 Great Lakes: Lake Huron, Lake Ontario, Lake Michigan, Lake Erie, and Lake Superior. They span the border between the USA and Canada.
Q76
Which of the Great Lakes does NOT form part of the US-Canada international boundary?
(A) Lake Huron
(B) Lake Ontario
β
(C) Lake Michigan
(D) Lake Erie
π Answer: (C)
Lake Michigan is the only Great Lake entirely within the United States territory and does not form the US-Canada border. All other four Great Lakes lie on or near the US-Canada border.
Q77
Which is the largest of the Great Lakes by surface area?
(A) Lake Huron
(B) Lake Ontario
(C) Lake Michigan
β
(D) Lake Superior
π Answer: (D)
Lake Superior is the largest of the Great Lakes by surface area (82,103 kmΒ²). It is also the largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. Lake Michigan-Huron together are larger but considered as one connected body.
Q78
Which is the smallest of the Great Lakes by surface area?
(A) Lake Erie
β
(B) Lake Ontario
(C) Lake Michigan
(D) Lake Huron
π Answer: (B)
Lake Ontario is the smallest of the five Great Lakes by surface area (18,960 kmΒ²), though Lake Erie is the shallowest.
Q126
The Bankers Books Evidence Act 1891 was a colonial-era legislation. Which colonial power enacted it?
(A) Portuguese
(B) French
β
(C) British
(D) Dutch
π Answer: (C)
The Bankers Books Evidence Act 1891 was enacted by the British colonial government during the British Raj. It is now being replaced by the Bankers Books Evidence Bill 2026 to modernize the framework.
Q133
Article 370 (which was abrogated in August 2019) granted special status to which state/UT?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
β
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Sikkim
π Answer: (C)
Article 370 granted special autonomous status to the state of Jammu & Kashmir. After its abrogation on 5th August 2019, J&K was reorganized into two Union Territories: J&K (with legislature) and Ladakh (without legislature).